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This is obviously an objective criteria, so the mods are always right. Or maybe mildly right? Ahh.. what do we know?
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So, if I understand correctly, the loss of motoric functions in Parkinson's is thought to be caused by the loss of dopamin in the brain. However, motoric functions remain normal if there's even just a little dopamin left in the system, which is surprising.
That is a really fascinating discovery and I wonder what the next steps will be to possibly apply a treatment based on this. Also, that article was written insanely well!
As someone diagnosed ADHD (i.e. my relationship with dopamine is complicated) and a grandfather who had Parkinson's, this is news to me and a little worrying, but perhaps also making sense because I'm pretty sure adhd may have been present yet undiagnosed in that side of the family.