this post was submitted on 26 Oct 2023
371 points (96.5% liked)

Asklemmy

43984 readers
770 users here now

A loosely moderated place to ask open-ended questions

Search asklemmy ๐Ÿ”

If your post meets the following criteria, it's welcome here!

  1. Open-ended question
  2. Not offensive: at this point, we do not have the bandwidth to moderate overtly political discussions. Assume best intent and be excellent to each other.
  3. Not regarding using or support for Lemmy: context, see the list of support communities and tools for finding communities below
  4. Not ad nauseam inducing: please make sure it is a question that would be new to most members
  5. An actual topic of discussion

Looking for support?

Looking for a community?

~Icon~ ~by~ ~@Double_A@discuss.tchncs.de~

founded 5 years ago
MODERATORS
 

Oh my god I've got so many ๐Ÿ˜ญ

you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
[โ€“] UlyssesT@hexbear.net 8 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 children)

The way I've seen logiclords explain it, it's because male orgasms result in sperm ejaculation, and feeemale orgasms do not, therefore feeeemale orgasms have no such contributing factor to conception therefore they have no reason to exist. kubrick-stare

[โ€“] msage@programming.dev 1 points 1 year ago

And their doctor wife agrees with them